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Chapter 5: Which Day for
Gentile Christians?
God gave the Sabbath covenant
to identify first the true God, as distinct and separate from false
gods, and second to identify those who are not God’s people!
The true
God and the false gods are distinguished by the fact that the true God
is the Creator and the false gods are of the creation.
An
examination of Exodus 20 and Deuteronomy 5 shows that Israel was given
the Sabbath as a means of remembering who their God was: the God who
created the heavens and the earth (Ex. 20) and the God who brought
them up out of the bondage of Egypt. (Deut. 5) They managed to
remember the Sabbath, but forgot who their God was.
John 7:28:
"Then cried Jesus in the temple as he taught, saying, Ye both know
me, and ye know whence I am: and I am not come of myself, but he that
sent me is true, whom ye know not." John 8:19: "Then said they
unto him, Where is thy Father? Jesus answered, Ye neither know me, nor
my Father: if ye had known me, ye should have known my Father
also."
It was not given to distinguish
between two kinds of God’s people—that is, for example, two kinds of
Christians—whether Jew or Gentile-born, whether male or female, we
Christians are all one in Christ Jesus (Gal. 3:28).
Where does
it say in Scripture that the Sabbath identifies who are not God's
people?
And let's not
forget that it is written in Galatians 3:28: "There is neither Jew nor
Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor
female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus." HWA's interpretation is
that all are "spiritually" Jews in an attempt to persuade people to
keep the Sabbath. [See:
Aren't we required to
keep the Law as a spiritual Jew?]
Have you not read, in Hosea,
how God pictured the House of Israel (the Ten-Tribed Kingdom) as
"Lo-ammi," meaning " not my people"? (Hosea 1:9.)
This was because they had rejected God’s Sabbath, and followed King
Jeroboam’s custom of observing the first day of the week (today called
Sunday) as their "Sabbath."
Does Scripture
relate that Jeroboam changed the Sabbath day to Sunday, or
just changed the month of the fall festival? (Read ESN article:
Did
Jeroboam Change the Sabbath to Sunday?)
Jeroboam ruled over Israel because Israel had already abandoned God.
Therefore," said God to
this idolatrous Sabbath-rejecting house, "behold, I will hedge up
thy way with thorns, and make a wall, that she shall not find her
paths" (Hosea 2:6).
Yet here
in Hosea 1 and 2 there is no mention that this punishment will occur because of
breaking the Sabbath alone. Other reasons are given, such as her
unfaithfulness to God.
Read these first two chapters
of Hosea—a prophecy for the Ten-tribed house of Israel. It portrays
them as having lost all knowledge of who their True God is!
It does
not say they had or would lose all knowledge of the true God. Israel
is depicted as being unfaithful and going after other nations—"lovers," but when this is
unfruitful, they decide to return to God (Hosea 2:7).
That pictures Britain and
America today! God has given us the unprecedented national wealth He
unconditionally promised Abraham—not because of our sins, but because
of Abraham's obedience!
One could
just as easily conclude that Britain and America are
"Christian" nations, and as such participate in the
blessings prophesied for Abraham, seeing as Christians participate in
the promises made to Abraham, due to Abraham's faith.
So, notice, verse 9, what God
is going to do about it!
"Therefore will I return,
and take away my corn in the time thereof, and my wine in the season
thereon..." —that is, the famine already now beginning in its
early years—prophesied by Joel, Ezekiel, by Christ, and in Revelation!
Yes, this is a prophecy for now! For our people! It is even now, as you
read, beginning!
This
booklet shows a copyright date of 1962. Did this famine occur? The
population of the world has greatly increased since 1962, and more
people are better fed today than then. Does Scripture warn us
concerning prophets whose prophesies do not come about? (Deut.
18:20-22)
Continue! Notice what else God
is now about to do to us: "I will also cause all her mirth to
cease, her feast days"—those of Baal... Continue: "her
new moons and her Sabbaths..." (Not God's, but those of Baalism,
which our people call their Sabbaths—the pagan Sunday!) (verse 11).
Is there
any historical proof that the worship of Baal occurred specifically on
Sunday? This judgment that was to come would destroy her yearly feast
days, including the Sabbath (mentioned alongside "new moons")
because they had been corrupted because of this Baal worship. (Hosea
2:13). They had forgotten God's goodness. Nothing said about the first
day of the week.
Probably you never understood
the prophecy of Hosea before! It cannot be really understood unless you
first understand the Sabbath Covenant of Exodus 31:12-17!
The
Sabbath Covenant of Exodus 31 ends with verse 18, which disproves this
whole line of reasoning: "And he gave unto Moses, when he had made an end of communing with him upon mount Sinai, two tables of testimony, tables of stone, written with the finger of God." If this is a
separate covenant, then there must be separate tablets (plural) of
stone, written by God. If it took two or more tablets to inscribe the
Ten Commandments (written on both sides, by the way) Then would it
take two or more tablets to inscribe the Sabbath Covenant? And how is
it we never hear about these separate tablets of the Sabbath Covenant?
Or are these tablets one and the same with the Ten?
Then why did God make this
special everlasting Sabbath Covenant with Israel—and not with Gentile
nations?
Simply because all Gentile
nations had cut themselves off, totally, from God. All had gone into
idolatry. None knew the true God.
Couldn't
this line of reasoning apply to Israel in Egypt?
Simply because God had taken a
down-trodden slave people—yet a people of superior heredity through
Abraham, Isaac and Jacob and Joseph—who were not inoculated with any
religion, and made them His nation.
Superior
heredity? Even with the inbreeding, seeing as Abraham married his
half-sister? And if they had not been "inoculated" with any
religion, where did they come up with the idea of making a golden calf
and worshiping it?
God gave His right ways—and
all His promises—including salvation through Christ—to Israel, so as
to make these ways and blessings known and available to the Gentiles!
Salvation was not
offered to the nation of Israel until Christ. Their
salvation was being freed from the tyranny of Egypt as a type of
the salvation that was to come:
"And Moses said unto the people, Fear ye not, stand still, and
see the salvation of the LORD, which he will shew to you to day: for
the Egyptians whom ye have seen to day, ye shall see them again no
more for ever." (Exodus 14:13)
Their "salvation" was prior to the giving of the Law, and before
they began keeping the Sabbath.
At the very beginning of
humanity, God talked to Adam and Eve personally. He gave them His
instruction—preached to them His Gospel. They knew that God offered
them eternal life as His gift. They knew the wages of sin is death. But
they reasoned their way around this truth—just as some of you reading
this are reasoning your way around what God would like to give you. Adam
and Eve rebelled. They willingly obeyed Satan.
1) God did
not offer them eternal life. He stated that they would die if they
partook of the forbidden fruit. They were made physical. Physical
beings grow old and eventually die. 2) It wasn't a matter of reasoning
around what God had told them. They did not believe what God had told
them; they were lacking in faith toward God.
And God has
decreed that man must choose! God does not allow man to reason out or to
decide what is sin. But God forces every man to decide whether to sin.
God has made it sin to break His Sabbath. You must decide! And as you
sow, you shall reap!
Does God really "force" people?
HWA has yet to offer any proof;
any "thus saith the Lord" regarding Christians and the Sabbath. What he
has done is resort to the methodologies of deception.
It was in such a world—cut off
from God—that the Eternal called out a despised, humiliated, slave
people, descended from Abraham. They had listened to and obeyed God.
That must
be why God called them a "stiff-necked people." Heb. 3:16: "For
who, having heard, rebelled? Indeed, was it not all who came out of
Egypt, let by Moses?"
It seems human nature and human
degradation are such that God had to take a debased, beaten-down, slave
people as the only ones who were humbled enough to listen to and obey
the Creator!
That's
why the whole first generation besides Caleb, Joshua, and Moses perished
in the wilderness.
But, remember—though reduced to slavery by circumstances, they were a
superior people by heredity.
How?
God purposed now to give all other nations a chance through this
called-out people. Israel!
Why then
was Naaman the Syrian healed of leprosy? He did not
"convert" over to the Sabbath or any other laws of Israel.
His healing had to do with faith. And, as Jesus pointed out later,
there were plenty of lepers in Israel at the time, who had the Law,
but were not healed. If this is all about being an example to other
nations, then Naaman would have been told to keep the Law, especially
the Sabbath, wouldn't he?
Of course, these Israelites had
human nature. Even Israel, for whom God performed stupendous and most
astounding miracles, never followed God's ways for long. But through
them God has taken away every excuse from all who rebel. Humanity has
been given every chance to repent of its way!
If
humanity
has been given every chance to repent of its way, why did the author
teach that God was not dealing with all of humanity then,
and is only dealing with those called out of the world now?
Later, during Christ's earthly
human ministry and after, God used His Church. Christ called out the
Church as special called-out people, not merely to preach His Gospel to
the world, but to show the world the desired results reaped from
obedience! As ancient Israel was called to be, so the Church, too, was
to be a light to the world!
Christ's
gospel
to the world was to show the desired results reaped from faith in Him! An
attempt is made to indicate that those who would obey God now, as
Christians, in keeping the Law, would reap the physical rewards and benefits
the author claims were given to Israel, which is not accurate.
Christians were portrayed as being those who would be persecuted and
chased from place to place, even killed by those who believed they
would be doing God a service in the process.
"Ye are the light of the
world," said Jesus to His disciples. "Let your light so shine
before men, that they may see your good works"! (Matt. 5:14, 16.)
That is, set the example! Let the world see the happy results!
The
results would be that people would see Christians' behavior of love
toward one another. They were a light by sharing the light of the Word
of God, not the
keeping of a day. The rest of verse 16 that the author fails to quote
says: "...and glorify your Father which is in heaven." Our
good works are for the purpose of glorifying God.
To these Gentile-born
Christians, Paul wrote: "Wherefore remember, that ye being in time
past Gentiles...That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens
from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of
promise, having no hope, and without God in the world: But now in Christ
Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of
Christ...Now therefore ye are no more strangers and foreigners, but
fellow citizens with the saints, and of the household of God" (Eph.
2:11-19).
Notice
that these verses refer to covenants "of promise" which includes Abraham’s
covenant. Being of promise means it was not by Law. The promises to
Abraham’s seed were unconditional. No performance was necessary by
the offspring of Abraham to secure what God had promised Abraham.
Romans 4:13-16: "For the promise, that he should be the heir of the world, was not to Abraham, or to his seed, through the law, but through the righteousness of faith. For if they which are of the law be heirs, faith is made void, and the promise made of none effect: Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression." If we take this statement in context, it
draws a conclusion that is anathema not only to those who believe in
keeping the Sabbath, but many other Christians also. If we live by
faith, and are not under the Law, we are not accounted as
transgressors. Verse 16: "Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham; who is the father of us
all." Yet we are made to believe that
there is only one brand of Christian, and they are all "of the
Law." Gal 3:17-18:"And this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect. For if the inheritance be of the law, it is no more of promise: but God gave it to Abraham by promise." If Abraham had been given the
Law, then Paul could not
have written this.
To become a converted
Christian, one must become, spiritually, an Israelite! Salvation, as
quoted before, is for "every one that believeth; to the Jew first,
and also to the Greek" (Rom. 1:16)
Paul didn't use any such term,
"spiritually an Israelite."
But let's humor HWA here
a bit. If we indeed are spiritually Israelites, and spiritual Israelites
undergo a spiritual circumcision and not a physical one, then wouldn't
our Sabbath also be spiritual, and not physical? This is exactly what is
being explained in Hebrews chapters 3 and 4 is one but has the eyes to
see.
But were not Gentiles excluded,
under the Old Testament?
They were not!
This is
partly true and partly false. They could become included if they
underwent circumcision, and then they came under the old covenant.
Otherwise, they were excluded. This is not the case in Christianity.
And let's not forget what HWA
himself cited earlier about the Gentiles being excluded from the
covenants of promise, which are in the Old Testament.
Gentiles always could come into
the congregation (Church) of Israel—and many did. Even as they were
first leaving Egypt, "...a mixed multitude went up also with
them" (Ex. 12:38). These were Gentiles.
The
implication being that this mixed multitude remained with Israel.
Egypt had been destroyed. Anyone who was not Egyptian would most likely
have left, some along with Israel. It is unlikely they would have
remained with Israel for long, given the hardships they underwent. In
any event Numbers 11 mentions them again.
In the instructions for
observing the Passover, God said: "And when a stranger [Gentile]
shall sojourn with thee, and will keep the Passover to the Eternal, let
all his males be circumcised, and then let him come near and keep it;
and he shall be as one that is born in the land" (Ex. 12:48).
Again, verse 49: "One law shall be to him that is home-born, and
unto the stranger that sojourneth among you."
Gentiles
had to become "physically" Israelites, through circumcision.
As far as strangers being under the same Law, God did not want Israel
oppressing the stranger, but rather for them to be just, treating
strangers equally under the Law.
No, the Sabbath was not a sign to separate Gentiles from
Israelites! Gentiles were not excluded!
Exodus
31:12-13 shows that under the Mosaic system the Sabbath was given for
the children of Israel. The ones
that were excluded were the Gentiles who did not join themselves
to Israel.
The Sabbath was made for man—for
mankind—for Gentile as well as Israelite.
God Himself made His Sabbath
binding forever—(Ex. 31:12-17). It is binding forever, perpetually,
throughout their generations, on Israelites. Their generations have not
ended. Forever has not ended.
It
must be stated again this had to do with Gentiles joining themselves
to Israel according to the covenant with Israel. The nation
of Israel as a theocracy has ended. Their generations as the nation of Israel have
ended.
Israelites become Christians
through Christ, the same as Gentiles. Israelite Christians, then, are
bound to keep God’s Holy Sabbath.
But what about Gentiles? They,
too, must keep it. They become Israelites, spiritually, when they
receive God’s Holy Spirit and become truly converted Christians. ...
We are all one in Christ!
But we are
not all alike! Can the Jews and Gentiles be different and yet still be
Christian? Galatians 2:14: "But when I saw that they walked not uprightly according to the truth of the gospel, I said unto Peter before them all, If thou, being a Jew, livest after the manner of Gentiles, and not as do the Jews, why compellest thou the Gentiles to live as do the Jews?" There were differences, and Paul points out that they shouldn’t
be compelling Gentile Christians to be as the Jewish Christians. They
were both justified by faith, not the works of the Law, as Paul goes
on to explain. Verse 16: "Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus
Christ,..." Also consider Romans 2:11-12: "For there is no respect of persons with God. For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law"; Verse 9 shows he is talking about
Jews and Gentiles, and that they are not both judged by the Law, such
as the Sabbath, for example.
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Questioning HWA's Doctrines
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